Portal Chunk 14

A) 4.5 mm

B) 5.0 mm

C) 5.5 mm

D) 6.0 mm

A) Bronchospasm

B) Laryngospasm

C) Foreign body aspiration

D) Anaphylaxis

A) Lower and posterior at C5-C6

B) Higher and anterior at C3-C4

C) At the same level but rotated anteriorly

D) Lower and anterior at C4-C5

A) 40 mL/hr

B) 48 mL/hr

C) 52 mL/hr

D) 56 mL/hr

A) Propofol intravenously via midazolam sedation

B) Sevoflurane inhalational induction

C) Thiopentone via rectal suppository

D) Ketamine intramuscularly

A) 2-3 mL/kg/min

B) 4-5 mL/kg/min

C) 6-8 mL/kg/min

D) 10-12 mL/kg/min

A) Hypoglycaemia

B) Emergence agitation

C) Opioid-induced dysphoria

D) Hyponatraemia from hypotonic fluids

A) Curved (Macintosh) blade to fit in the vallecula

B) Straight (Miller) blade to directly lift the epiglottis

C) Video laryngoscope with a hyperangulated blade

D) Curved blade with external laryngeal manipulation

A) 1 mg/kg IV

B) 2 mg/kg IM

C) 4 mg/kg IM

D) 6 mg/kg IM

A) Cuffed tubes are contraindicated below age 8 due to risk of tracheal necrosis

B) Cuffed tubes reduce the risk of aspiration and may require less tube-size adjustment

C) Uncuffed tubes always provide a better seal than appropriately sized cuffed tubes

D) Cuffed tubes increase airway resistance proportionally more than uncuffed tubes

A) Surgery should proceed regardless, as RTIs do not affect anaesthetic risk in children over 5

B) A 2-week deferral is mandatory after any symptomatic URTI

C) Risk-benefit assessment should consider symptom severity, timing, and procedure urgency; deferral may be indicated

D) Laryngeal mask airway use is absolutely contraindicated after URTI

A) Invasive arterial line as standard of care for all infants

B) Non-invasive oscillometric cuff sized to cover two-thirds of the upper arm length

C) Doppler ultrasound over the radial artery with manual inflation

D) Central venous pressure as a surrogate for systemic pressure

A) 99%

B) 95%

C) 90%

D) 88% in term neonates only

A) Difficult intravenous access requiring central line insertion

B) Risk of postoperative apnoea requiring overnight monitoring

C) Absolute contraindication to regional anaesthesia in ex-premature infants

D) Mandatory avoidance of all volatile anaesthetic agents

A) Higher body surface area-to-weight ratio and reduced subcutaneous fat

B) Lower metabolic rate and reduced oxygen consumption

C) Greater muscle mass generating less thermogenesis

D) Immature hepatic drug metabolism slowing heat production

A) Propofol

B) Dexmedetomidine

C) Thiopentone

D) Atracurium

A) High coefficient of 1.4 means slow induction; useful for controlled titration

B) Low coefficient of 0.65 means rapid equilibration between alveolar and blood concentration, enabling fast induction

C) Coefficient of 0.65 means a higher administered concentration is needed than for halothane

D) The coefficient is irrelevant in children because alveolar ventilation is proportionally similar to adults

A) To counteract the histamine release caused by suxamethonium

B) To prevent suxamethonium-induced hyperkalaemia

C) To prevent bradycardia because children are more prone to vagal responses and suxamethonium itself can cause bradycardia

D) To reduce the dose of suxamethonium required for intubating conditions

A) Bupivacaine 0.5% at 0.5 mL/kg

B) Levobupivacaine 0.25% at 1 mL/kg

C) Lignocaine 2% at 1 mL/kg

D) Ropivacaine 1% at 0.5 mL/kg

A) A 6-year-old who last ate 7 hours ago presenting for elective dental extraction

B) A 4-year-old with pyloric stenosis corrected 48 hours previously presenting for wound review

C) A 9-year-old with full stomach presenting for emergency appendicectomy

D) A 12-year-old who is 5 hours post-milkshake, presenting for knee arthroscopy