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A) Class I

B) Class II

C) Class III

D) Class IV

A) Bilateral chest auscultation

B) Chest radiograph

C) End-tidal CO₂ waveform capnography

D) Observation of chest rise

A) Head-tilt chin-lift

B) Jaw thrust without head extension

C) Neck hyperextension

D) Nasopharyngeal airway insertion alone

A) Grade I

B) Grade II

C) Grade III

D) Grade IV

A) It reduces the induction dose of propofol required

B) It extends the safe apnoea time by replacing nitrogen in the FRC with oxygen

C) It prevents laryngospasm during intubation

D) It reduces the risk of bronchospasm in atopic patients

A) Administer a second dose of succinylcholine and attempt intubation again

B) Insert a supraglottic airway device and, if oxygenation fails, proceed to surgical front-of-neck access

C) Continue mask ventilation with two-person technique and await recovery of spontaneous breathing

D) Attempt blind nasal intubation

A) Recurrent laryngeal nerve block

B) Superior laryngeal nerve block (internal branch)

C) Glossopharyngeal nerve block

D) Hypoglossal nerve block

A) It allows positive-pressure ventilation at higher airway pressures

B) It incorporates a gastric drainage channel, reducing the risk of aspiration

C) It is easier to insert in patients with trismus

D) It provides a definitive airway suitable for patients with a full stomach

A) Grade I laryngoscopic view with clear cord visualisation

B) Grade III or IV laryngoscopic view where the cords are not visible

C) When a tube exchanger is needed after extubation

D) During awake nasal fibreoptic intubation

A) A distance greater than 7 cm

B) A distance less than 6 cm

C) A distance less than 3 finger-breadths (approximately 5–6 cm)

D) A distance greater than 9 cm

A) Succinylcholine has no cardiovascular side effects

B) Succinylcholine has a shorter duration of action, allowing faster return of spontaneous ventilation if intubation fails

C) Succinylcholine is safe in patients with hyperkalaemia

D) Succinylcholine provides superior intubating conditions at standard doses

A) Inhalational induction with sevoflurane

B) Rapid sequence induction with high-dose rocuronium

C) Awake fibreoptic intubation with topical anaesthesia and judicious sedation

D) Video laryngoscopy under deep propofol sedation

A) The thyroid gland isthmus

B) The cricothyroid membrane, located between the thyroid and cricoid cartilages

C) The hyoid bone

D) The tracheal rings below the cricoid cartilage

A) 5–10 cmH₂O

B) 20–30 cmH₂O

C) 35–50 cmH₂O

D) 50–60 cmH₂O

A) Oesophageal intubation

B) Accidental extubation or tube displacement above the cords

C) Disconnection in the breathing circuit

D) Cardiac arrest

A) Deviated nasal septum

B) Base of skull fracture

C) Known allergy to latex

D) Recent tonsillectomy

A) The tube is too small for the trachea

B) The acute blade angulation creates a mismatch between glottic view and tube trajectory, requiring a pre-formed stylet

C) The cuff is over-inflated before insertion

D) The patient has tracheal stenosis

A) Attempt blind nasal intubation immediately

B) Wake the patient and postpone the procedure

C) Optimise head position, apply external laryngeal manipulation, and use a bougie or video laryngoscope for a second attempt

D) Proceed with supraglottic airway insertion as a definitive airway for the caesarean section

A) Laryngospasm

B) Gastric insufflation and increased risk of regurgitation

C) Corneal abrasion

D) Tracheal mucosal injury

A) Increased cardiac output

B) Reduced functional residual capacity combined with increased oxygen consumption

C) Elevated progesterone levels causing airway relaxation

D) Supine hypotensive syndrome